MPT 2024 Past Paper

1. What does the word “Quran” mean?
  1. To read
  2. To recite
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Both A and B
2. Who performed the compilation of the Holy Quran after the demise of Prophet Muhammad (SAW)?
  1. Hazrat Abu Bakar (RA)
  2. Hazrat Umar (RA)
  3. Hazrat Ali (RA)
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Hazrat Abu Bakar (RA)
3. In which year of Prophethood did the first “Bait-e-Uqba” take place?
  1. 1st
  2. 2nd
  3. 10th
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) None of these — the First Pledge of Aqabah took place in the 11th year of Prophethood.
4. In which year of Prophethood did Hazrat Hamza (RA) embrace Islam?
  1. 2nd Nabvi
  2. 5th Nabvi
  3. 8th Nabvi
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) None of these — commonly dated to the 6th year of Prophethood.
5. Hazrat Usman (RA) did not take part in Ghazwa-e-Badr due to:
  1. Illness of his wife
  2. Old age
  3. Being on a journey
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Illness of his wife
6. What does “Masnad” mean?
  1. Throne
  2. Mosque
  3. Market
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Throne
17. Which of the following is a key method of self-purification in Islam?
اسلام میں تزکیہ نفس کا بنیادی طریقہ کار کیا ہے؟
  1. Sawm / روزہ
  2. Salah / نماز
  3. Hajj / حج
  4. None of these / ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Sawm / روزہ
18. What role does the “Mudaraba” play in the Islamic economic system?
اسلامی معاشی نظام میں “مضاربت” کیا کردار ادا کرتا ہے؟
  1. It promotes profit-sharing between investors and entrepreneurs.
  2. It refers to fixed, guaranteed returns on investments.
  3. It encourages individuals to hoard wealth.
  4. None of these.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) It promotes profit-sharing between investors and entrepreneurs.
19. Who is named as Shaikh Ul Anbia?
شیخ الانبیاء کس کو کہا جاتا ہے؟
  1. Hazrat Adam (AS) / حضرت آدم علیہ السلام
  2. Hazrat Nooh (AS) / حضرت نوح علیہ السلام
  3. Hazrat Ibrahim (AS) / حضرت ابراہیم علیہ السلام
  4. Hazrat Muhammad (SAW) / حضرت محمد صلی اللہ علیہ وسلم
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Hazrat Nooh (AS)
20. Musa bin Nusair conquered parts of:
موسیٰ بن نصیر نے ـــــــــــــــ کے حصے فتح کیے۔
  1. Asia / ایشیا
  2. Africa / افریقہ
  3. Europe / یورپ
  4. Australia / آسٹریلیا
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Africa / افریقہ
Urdu Literature & Drama — Questions 21–25
21. The first drama in Urdu was written by:
  1. Abdul Halim Sharar
  2. Agha Hashar
  3. Deputy Nazir Ahmed
  4. Agha Hassan Amanat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Agha Hassan Amanat
22. During the nineteenth century Urdu Drama was dominated by:
  1. Historical events
  2. Folk lore
  3. Dance and music
  4. Stories based on mythologies
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Dance and music
23. Free verse was introduced in Urdu Drama by:
  1. Abdul Halim Sharar
  2. Agha Hassan Amanat
  3. Altaf Hussain Hali
  4. Imtiaz Ali Taj
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Abdul Halim Sharar
24. Urdu Drama got increasingly close to everyday life:
  1. In the nineteenth century
  2. In the first half of the twentieth century
  3. In the first quarter of the twentieth century
  4. In the second quarter of the twentieth century
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) In the second quarter of the twentieth century
25. Mirza Adeeb was the contemporary of:
  1. Abdul Halim Sharar
  2. Imtiaz Ali Taj
  3. Altaf Hussain Hali
  4. Agha Hashar
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Imtiaz Ali Taj
Urdu Literature & Grammar — Questions 26–34
26. In which collection is the poem “Tulu-e-Islam” included?
  1. Bal-e-Jibril
  2. Bang-e-Dara
  3. Zarb-e-Kaleem
  4. Armaghan-e-Hijaz
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Bang-e-Dara
27. Who is the author of “Aag Ka Darya”?
  1. Ismat Chughtai
  2. Quratulain Hyder
  3. Premchand
  4. Hijab Imtiaz Ali
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Quratulain Hyder
28. Faiz Ahmed Faiz dedicated his first poetry collection to:
  1. Mir Taqi Mir
  2. Ghalib
  3. Iqbal
  4. Maulana Hali
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ghalib. The collection’s title Naqsh-e-Faryadi itself draws on Ghalib’s poetry.
29. Who is the poet of the famous line regarding unravelling locks?
  1. Mir Taqi Mir
  2. Momin Khan Momin
  3. Mirza Ghalib
  4. Haider Ali Aatish
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Momin Khan Momin
30. Who wrote the famous drama “Anarkali”?
  1. Ahmed Nadeem Qasmi
  2. Nizam Abbas
  3. Imtiaz Ali Taj
  4. Imtiaz Ali
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Imtiaz Ali Taj
31. A noun indicating a specific person, place, or thing is called:
  1. Ism-e-Nakra
  2. Ism-e-Marfa
  3. Ism-e-Zarf
  4. Ism-e-Sifat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Ism-e-Marfa
32. A noun that is neither derived nor has other words derived from it is called:
  1. Ism-e-Jamid
  2. Ism-e-Masdar
  3. Ism-e-Mushtaq
  4. Ism-e-Nakra
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Ism-e-Jamid
33. A noun given as a title by the government or ruler is called:
  1. Khitab
  2. Laqab
  3. Kuniyat
  4. Takhallus
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Khitab
34. A noun indicating time or location is called:
  1. Ism-e-Zarf
  2. Ism-e-Zarf-e-Zaman
  3. Ism-e-Zarf-e-Makan
  4. Ism-e-Zarf-e-Ghair Mehdood
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Ism-e-Zarf
Urdu Grammar & Vocabulary — Questions 35–40
35. What is the term for a combination of two or more words?
  1. Lisani Murakkab
  2. Sha’ri Murakkab
  3. Murakkab
  4. Murakkab Alfaaz
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Murakkab
36. What is the grammatical root/form of “Haakim”?
  1. Ahkaam
  2. Hikmat
  3. Hukm
  4. Hukumaat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Hukm
37. What is the grammatical root/form of “Saalik”?
  1. Sulook
  2. Silsila
  3. Salook
  4. Sulaak
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Sulook
38. What is the Urdu translation of “Latent”?
  1. Poshida
  2. Zahir
  3. Benazir
  4. Jalwa
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Poshida
39. What is the Urdu translation of “Preposterous”?
  1. Aqal ke khilaf
  2. Be-tukka
  3. Be-bunyad
  4. Jazbati
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Aqal ke khilaf
40. What is the meaning of the idiom “Move heaven and earth”?
  1. Musibat se nikalna
  2. Bahut zyada koshish karna
  3. Be-had kaam karna
  4. Mubalgha karna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Bahut zyada koshish karna
English Vocabulary & Grammar — Questions 41–66

Synonyms — Questions 41–46

41. Quandary:
  1. Predicament
  2. Difficulty
  3. Consternation
  4. Simplicity
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Predicament
42. Obstreperous:
  1. Angry
  2. Noisy
  3. Saddened
  4. Shy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Noisy
43. Effervescent:
  1. Quick
  2. Lively
  3. Compassionate
  4. Quiet
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Lively
44. Penurious:
  1. Generous
  2. Impoverished
  3. False
  4. Fabricated
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Impoverished
45. Histrionic:
  1. Happy
  2. Dramatic
  3. Joyous
  4. Subdued
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Dramatic
46. Quiescent:
  1. Active
  2. Dormant
  3. Pensive
  4. Thoughtful
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Dormant

Antonyms — Questions 47–52

47. Turpitude:
  1. Passion
  2. Happiness
  3. Virtue
  4. Corruption
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Virtue
48. Vituperate:
  1. Praise
  2. Indifferent
  3. Agree
  4. Berate
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Praise
49. Insouciant:
  1. Carefree
  2. Angry
  3. Anxious
  4. Dull
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Anxious
50. Vitriolic:
  1. Bitter
  2. Graceful
  3. Active
  4. Amiable
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Amiable
51. Equanimity:
  1. Astonishment
  2. Displeased
  3. Agitation
  4. Tranquility
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Agitation
52. Sibilant:
  1. Loud
  2. Whispering
  3. Noisy
  4. Sonorous
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Sonorous

Idioms & Phrases — Questions 53–59

53. “To have a chip on one’s shoulder” means:
  1. To be happy
  2. To have a resentful or angry attitude
  3. To be confused
  4. To forgive someone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) To have a resentful or angry attitude
54. “To cast in the teeth” means:
  1. To appreciate someone
  2. To ignore someone
  3. To criticize or reproach someone
  4. To help someone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) To criticize or reproach someone
55. “To pass the buck” means:
  1. To shift responsibility
  2. To accept responsibility
  3. To earn money
  4. To make a decision
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) To shift responsibility
56. “To ride roughshod over” means:
  1. To cooperate with someone
  2. To praise someone
  3. To dominate or treat someone harshly
  4. To avoid someone
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) To dominate or treat someone harshly
57. “To read the riot act” means:
  1. To entertain people
  2. To tell a story
  3. To deliver a stern warning or reprimand
  4. To start a celebration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) To deliver a stern warning or reprimand
58. “To put a spoke in one’s wheel” means:
  1. To encourage someone’s plans
  2. To obstruct or hinder plans
  3. To complete a task
  4. To change one’s mind
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) To obstruct or hinder plans
59. “To have a bone to pick with someone” means:
  1. To praise someone
  2. To have an unresolved dispute to address
  3. To help someone
  4. To avoid an argument
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) To have an unresolved dispute to address

Prepositions — Questions 60–66

60. Complete the sentence:

The negotiations were marred with allegations, casting a shadow over the legitimacy of the entire process.

Show Answer
Correct Prepositions: with, over
61. Complete the sentence:

He was compelled to delve into ancient archives, uncovering forgotten tales from centuries past.

Show Answer
Correct Prepositions: into, from
62. Complete the sentence:

The structures blend seamlessly along the urban landscape, harmonizing with the existing structures.

Show Answer
Correct Prepositions: along, with
63. Complete the sentence:

He delved deep into the intricacies, shedding light on the enigma of self-awareness.

Show Answer
Correct Prepositions: into, on
64. Complete the sentence:

He embarked on a quest, etched onto the ancient artifact.

Show Answer
Correct Prepositions: on, onto
65. Complete the sentence:

The futuristic skyscraper was integrated with the existing cityscape, harmonizing with its historical architecture.

Show Answer
Correct Preposition: with
66. Complete the sentence:

The investigation was conducted with utmost confidentiality, keeping the details from the prying eyes of the media.

Show Answer
Correct Prepositions: with, from
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English Grammar, Usage & Punctuation — Questions 67–80
Instruction: Choose the correct answer. Click Show Answer to reveal the answer. No JavaScript is used.
67. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.
  1. Amidst the cacophony of the bustling metropolis, there exists an oasis of tranquility where the weary souls find respite.
  2. Amidst the cacophonies of the bustling metropolis, there exists an oasis of tranquility where the weary soul finds respite.
  3. Amidst the cacophony of the bustling metropolis, there exists an oasis of tranquilities where the weary souls find respite.
  4. Amidst the cacophony of the bustling metropolises, there exists an oasis of tranquility where the weary soul finds respite.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
68. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.
  1. Irrespective of the diverse opinions, the committee has convened to discuss the pressing issues.
  2. Irrespective of the diverse opinion, the committee has convened to discuss the pressing issues.
  3. Irrespective the diverse opinions, the committee has convened to discuss the pressing issues.
  4. Irrespective of the diverse opinions, the committee have convened to discuss the pressing issues.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
69. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.
  1. Within the convoluted corridors of bureaucracy, myriad regulations often impede progress.
  2. Within the convoluted corridor of bureaucracies, myriad regulation often impedes progress.
  3. Within the convoluted corridors of bureaucracies, myriads regulation often impedes progress.
  4. Within the convoluted corridor of bureaucracy, myriads regulations often impedes progress.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
70. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.
  1. Despite her exhaustion, the dedicated scientist continued to meticulously analyze the intricate data sets.
  2. Despite her exhaustion, the dedicated scientists continued to meticulously analyze the intricate data set.
  3. Despite her exhaustion, the dedicated scientist continued to meticulously analyze the intricacies data sets.
  4. Despite her exhaustion, the dedicated scientists continued to meticulously analyze the intricacies data set.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
71. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.
  1. The enigmatic nature of dark matter continues to baffle cosmologists, as its properties remain elusive.
  2. The enigmatic natures of dark matters continue to baffle cosmologists, as their properties remain elusive.
  3. The enigmatic natures of dark matter continue to baffle cosmologists, as their properties remains elusive.
  4. The enigmatic nature of dark matters continue to baffle cosmologists, as its properties remains elusive.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
72. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.
  1. Amidst the relentless march of technology, ethical dilemmas arising from artificial intelligence and automation demand thoughtful consideration.
  2. Amidst the relentless marches of technologies, ethical dilemmas arising from artificial intelligences and automations demand thoughtful considerations.
  3. Amidst the relentless march of technologies, ethical dilemmas arising from artificial intelligences and automations demand thoughtful considerations.
  4. Amidst the relentless marches of technology, ethical dilemmas arising from artificial intelligence and automation demands thoughtful consideration.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
73. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.
  1. The intricate interplay of genetics and epigenetics, along with the influence of environmental factors, shapes an individual’s health outcomes.
  2. The intricacies interplays of genetics and epigenetics, along with the influences of environmental factors, shapes an individual’s health outcome.
  3. The intricacies interplays of genetics and epigenetic, along with the influence of environmental factors, shapes an individual’s health outcomes.
  4. The intricate interplays of genetics and epigenetics, along with the influences of environmental factors, shape an individual’s health outcome.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
74. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.
  1. Regardless of the myriad challenges, the dedicated team is determined to pursue their ambitious goals.
  2. Regardless of the myriad challenge, the dedicated team are determined to pursue their ambitious goals.
  3. Regardless of the myriads challenges, the dedicated team is determined to pursue their ambitious goals.
  4. Regardless of the myriads challenges, the dedicated team are determined to pursue their ambitious goals.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A)
75. Identify the sentence with a grammatical error.
  1. The physicist, along with her team, are conducting groundbreaking research.
  2. Despite the challenging conditions, he persevered in his quest for knowledge.
  3. The book, which has been read by millions, remains a classic.
  4. Their commitment to excellence is evident in all that they do.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) — The subject is “physicist”; therefore, it should be “is conducting.”
76. Identify the sentence with a grammatical error.
  1. The phenomenon of quantum entanglement bewilders even seasoned physicists.
  2. Neither the professor nor her students have received their assignments yet.
  3. The committee, consisting of experts in their respective fields, were divided.
  4. The team’s performance has been consistently excellent.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) — In standard usage, “committee” is singular here: “The committee … was divided.”
77. Choose the sentence with a semantic error.
  1. The herculean effort required to complete the task was undeniable.
  2. The cacophonous symphony of the city streets was oddly soothing.
  3. The scientist’s groundbreaking discovery left the world in a state of awe.
  4. Her altruistic disposition was as clear as a cloudy day.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) — “As clear as a cloudy day” contradicts the intended meaning of clarity.
78. Identify the sentence with correct punctuation usage.
  1. My favorite hobbies include reading knitting and cooking.
  2. It’s raining outside, however, I brought my umbrella.
  3. The concert was amazing — I’ve never heard such talented musicians.
  4. The professor’s lecture was long; therefore it was informative.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
79. Identify the sentence with correct punctuation usage.
  1. My hobbies include: reading, knitting, and cooking.
  2. She was tired, nevertheless, she decided to finish the project.
  3. The conference has been postponed, thus we have more time to prepare.
  4. He enjoys playing the guitar; he finds it relaxing.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D)
80. Identify the sentence with the correct use of the colon.
  1. I have three goals for the year, lose weight, save money and travel more.
  2. The ingredients for the cake are: flour, sugar, eggs, and vanilla extract.
  3. She had one question: when is the deadline?
  4. He enjoys various outdoor activities: such as hiking, camping, and fishing.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C)
Passage No. 1 — Questions 81–85

Plato, the famous Greek philosopher, taught that the things of the world around us are merely copies or “shadows” of greater, eternal realities. He used a metaphor of people living inside a cave to convey his ideas.

The people inside the cave could not see the world outside the cave; they could only see shadows of people and animals as they passed by. Plato was suggesting that the shadows would seem very real and alive to the people inside the cave because that was all they had ever seen of the outside world. But these shadows were not the real, living creatures of the outside world; they were merely reflections of them. Plato’s point was that this temporal world is a __________ of some greater, eternal reality.

81. The word that would most accurately fit the blank at the end of the second paragraph is:
  1. Shadow
  2. Picture
  3. Contradiction
  4. Reversal
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Correct Answer: (A) Shadow
82. The underlined word “convey”, as used in this passage, most accurately means:
  1. Give birth to
  2. Rationalize
  3. Experiment
  4. Explain
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Explain
83. What is the main idea of Plato’s cave analogy?
  1. This world is not all there is.
  2. Mankind cannot hope to see the truth.
  3. Humans are stupid.
  4. Real things cast shadows.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) This world is not all there is.
84. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
  1. Life in a Cave
  2. Making Shadow Puppets
  3. Perception and Reality
  4. Is There Life After Death?
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Perception and Reality
85. The underlined word “temporal”, as used in the passage, most nearly means:
  1. Imaginary
  2. Hypothetical
  3. Old-fashioned
  4. Temporary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Temporary
Passage No. 2 — Questions 86–90

Yesterday, I was exposed to what has been called “a dining experience like no other.” At lunchtime, Dilly’s Deli is so crowded, I wondered when the fire marshal had last visited the establishment. The line snaked out of the door to the corner, and by the time I reached the counter, I was freezing. I decided on the hamburger steak special; the other specials being liver and onions or tuna casserole.

Each special is offered with two side dishes, but there was no potato salad left and the green beans were cooked nearly beyond recognition. I chose the gelatin of the day and what turned out to be the blandest coleslaw I have ever eaten.

At Dilly’s, you sit at one of four long tables. The couple sitting across from me was having an argument. The truck driver next to me told me more than I wanted to know about highway taxes. After I had tasted all of the food on my plate, I rose to leave, whereupon one of the people working behind the counter yelled at me to clean up after myself. Throwing away that plate of food was the most enjoyable part of dining at Dilly’s.

86. If you go to lunch at Dilly’s Deli, you could expect to see:
  1. Couples dining together
  2. The fire marshal
  3. A long line of customers
  4. Homemade pie
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) A long line of customers
87. The passage suggests that if you eat lunch at Dilly’s Deli, you should expect to:
  1. Be called out by the restaurant’s staff
  2. Place your order with the waiter who comes to your table
  3. Dress warmly
  4. Carry your own food to your table
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Be called out by the restaurant’s staff
88. Which of the following illustrates the restaurant critic’s opinion of the food at Dilly’s Deli?
  1. “At Dilly’s, you sit at one of four long tables.”
  2. “At lunchtime, Dilly’s Deli is so crowded, I wondered when the fire marshal had last visited the establishment.”
  3. “After I had tasted all of the food on my plate, I rose to leave, whereupon one of the people working behind the counter yelled at me to clean up after myself.”
  4. “Throwing away that plate of food was the most enjoyable part of dining at Dilly’s.”
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D)
89. The main purpose of the restaurant review is to:
  1. Tell people about the presence of truck drivers at Dilly’s Deli.
  2. Make fun of couples who argue in public.
  3. Recommend the hamburger steak special.
  4. Warn people that Dilly’s Deli tends to be crowded.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) Warn people that Dilly’s Deli tends to be crowded.
90. The role of the “fire marshal”, as mentioned in the passage, appears to be:
  1. Checking the hygienic condition in the restaurant
  2. Checking overcrowding at public places
  3. Ensuring disciplined conduct of restaurant staff
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Checking overcrowding at public places
General Abilities & Mathematics — Questions 91–109
91. Evaluate: 41/2 × 42 − 40
  1. 24
  2. 28
  3. 31
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 31
41/2 = 2, so 2 × 16 − 1 = 31.
92. What is k, given that 27k = 9?
  1. 1/3
  2. 2/3
  3. 4/3
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 2/3
93. Several cows on a farm consume the food in 150 days. If the number of cows is reduced by 10, the food lasts for 10 more days. How many cows were there on the farm in the beginning?
  1. 150
  2. 160
  3. 100
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) None of these.
If x cows are present: 150x = 160(x − 10), giving x = 160. Therefore, if 160 is an available option, the answer would be (B).
94. A train of length 99 m takes 11 seconds to pass completely through a station of length 231 m. What is the speed of the train in km/h?
  1. 108
  2. 75.6
  3. 30
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 108 km/h
Distance = 99 + 231 = 330 m. Speed = 330 ÷ 11 = 30 m/s = 108 km/h.
95. A, B and C share $112. B receives $12 less than A and C gets twice as much as B. How much does C get?
  1. 34
  2. 44
  3. 50
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 44
96. Find an integer such that four times the number subtracted from two times the square of the number gives 15.
  1. 3
  2. -3
  3. -5/3
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 3.
2x² − 4x = 15 gives 2x² − 4x − 15 = 0. The integer solution is x = 3.
97. Zaid is six times as old as his daughter Zoya. How old was Zaid when Zoya was born if the sum of their ages will be 49 in 7 years?
  1. 25
  2. 35
  3. 42
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 35.
Current ages sum to 49 − 14 = 35. Let Zoya = x and Zaid = 6x. Then 7x = 35, so x = 5 and Zaid = 30. When Zoya was born, Zaid was 30 − 5 = 25.
Therefore the correct answer is actually (A) 25.
98. Find two consecutive positive numbers such that the sum of their squares is 7 less than 120.
  1. 7, 8
  2. 8, 9
  3. 7, 9
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 7, 8.
7² + 8² = 49 + 64 = 113 = 120 − 7.
99. A light shop sells lights. They sold 25% of the lights and still had 1500 lights left. How many lights were there in the beginning?
  1. 2500
  2. 2250
  3. 2000
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 2000
100. Given x² − 11x + 10 = 0, then x is:
  1. -1, -10
  2. -1, +10
  3. +1, -10
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) None of these.
x² − 11x + 10 = (x − 1)(x − 10), so x = 1, 10.
101. Total cost of 5 markers and 1 pencil is Rs.245 and total cost of 3 markers and 3 pencils is Rs.327. What is the cost of one marker?
  1. Rs. 32
  2. Rs. 34
  3. Rs. 74
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) Rs. 34
102. The first term in a sequence is 1 and the second term is 5. From the third term onwards, each term is the average of all preceding terms. What is the 27th term?
  1. 2.5
  2. 3
  3. 5.5
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 3.
The third term is 3, and every subsequent term remains 3.
103. Every small cake costs $x and every large cake costs $(2x + 3). The cost of 3 small lemon cakes and 2 large lemon cakes is $16.36. What is the cost of one small lemon cake?
  1. $1.91
  2. $1.48
  3. $2.34
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) $1.48.
3x + 2(2x + 3) = 16.36 → 7x + 6 = 16.36 → x = 1.48.
104. If one angle of an isosceles triangle is 68°, then possible values of the second angle are:
  1. Any value between 68° and 180°
  2. Any value between 68° and 112°
  3. Any value between 1° and 112°
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) None of these.
The possible second angles are 68° or 44°.
105. The total perimeter of a semicircle is 20.6 cm. What is the approximate radius?
  1. 4 cm
  2. 5 cm
  3. 6.6 cm
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 4 cm.
Semicircle perimeter = πr + 2r. Thus r ≈ 20.6 ÷ 5.14 ≈ 4 cm.
106. A water tank in the shape of a cuboid has length 1.5 m and width 1.0 m. How many litres of water are in the tank if the water is 60 cm deep?
  1. 9000 litres
  2. 900 litres
  3. 90 litres
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 900 litres.
Volume = 1.5 × 1 × 0.6 = 0.9 m³ = 900 litres.
107. The inner circumference of a circular race track is 440 m. If the width of the track is 14 m, what is the radius of the outer circle?
  1. 70 m
  2. 77 m
  3. 84 m
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 84 m.
Inner radius = 440 ÷ (2 × 22/7) = 70 m. Outer radius = 70 + 14 = 84 m.
108. In a group of 200 people, 90 like tennis, 108 like cricket and 46 like both tennis and cricket. How many like neither?
  1. 44
  2. 48
  3. 62
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) 48.
At least one = 90 + 108 − 46 = 152. Neither = 200 − 152 = 48. Therefore the correct option is (B) 48.
109. 450 visitors visit a museum on each Monday, while only 120 visit on each of the remaining six days. What is the daily average in a 30-day month beginning on a Monday?
  1. 164
  2. 160
  3. 175
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 175.
There are 5 Mondays: (5 × 450) + (25 × 120) = 5250. 5250 ÷ 30 = 175.
Logical Reasoning & Analytical Ability — Questions 110–120
110. A is B’s daughter, C is B’s mother, D is B’s sister and E is D’s son. How is A related to E?
  1. Uncle
  2. Grand daughter
  3. Cousin
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Cousin
111. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother, and that girl’s father is my father’s son.” Whose photograph was it?
  1. His father
  2. His own
  3. His daughter
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) His daughter
112. A bus for Islamabad leaves every 52 minutes. An enquiry officer says that the bus left 16 minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 08:15 pm. At what time did he give the information?
  1. 07:23 pm
  2. 07:39 pm
  3. 07:49 pm
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 07:39 pm.
Previous bus = 08:15 − 52 = 07:23 pm. Information was given 16 minutes later = 07:39 pm.
113. Pearl Tower is taller than Sky Tower but shorter than Ocean Tower. Ocean Tower and MCB Tower are the same height. Pearl Tower is shorter than Bahria Tower. Which is the second shortest?
  1. Pearl Tower
  2. Sky Tower
  3. Ocean Tower
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (A) Pearl Tower
114. Peter is in the East of Tom and Tom is in the North of John. Mike is in the South of John. In which direction of Peter is Mike?
  1. South-East
  2. South-West
  3. South
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) South-West
115. Six subjects are scheduled: Geography, History, Jurisprudence, Kinetics, Literature, and Mechanics.

A. Geography has to be immediately after History.
B. Kinetics has to be earlier than Geography.
C. Mechanics has to be earlier than Literature.
D. Mechanics has to be either immediately before or immediately after Jurisprudence.

If Literature is earlier than Kinetics, then History must be in which position?

  1. First
  2. Third
  3. Fifth
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Fifth
116. Six girls are sitting in a circle facing the centre. R is between N and S. P is next to the left of V. R is 4th to the right of P. What is the position of T?
  1. To the immediate right of V
  2. Second to the left of P
  3. Second to the right of R
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) Second to the right of R
117. Roni and Willy had a 100 m race. Roni covered the distance in 45 seconds and Willy covered it in 36 seconds. Willy beats Roni by how much distance?
  1. 20 m
  2. 22.5 m
  3. 25 m
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 25 m.
In 36 seconds Roni covers 100 × 36/45 = 80 m. Difference = 100 − 80 = 20 m. Therefore the mathematically correct answer is (A) 20 m.
118. What are a and b in the sequence: a, 13, 9, 3, −5, −15, b?
  1. 15, −25
  2. 15, −27
  3. 16, −28
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) None of these.
Differences are −4, −6, −8, −10, −12, so a = 17 and b = −29.
119. What is the sum of prime numbers less than 21?
  1. 58
  2. 64
  3. 77
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 77.
2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11 + 13 + 17 + 19 = 77.
120. Old generation people were born between 1965 and 1981. They can do most tasks independently. Some people call them the Entrepreneurial Generation. Which conclusion follows logically?
  1. They have a natural tendency of being self-employed.
  2. They work harder than any recent generation.
  3. They require some assistance to do tasks.
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (D) None of these
Mathematics — Questions 121–126
121. The expression 3(−4 × 5 − 6) is equal to:
  1. 12
  2. −78
  3. −15
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) −78
122. Arrange in order of size, smallest to largest: (i) 0.5²   (ii) 0.5   (iii) 0.5³   (iv) ∛0.5
  1. iv, ii, i, iii
  2. iii, i, ii, iv
  3. ii, i, iii, iv
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) iii, i, ii, iv.
0.125 < 0.25 < 0.5 < 0.7937.
123. Forest workers plant 200 trees in one month (30 days). When 20 workers were sent away, 200 trees were planted in 40 days by the second group. How many workers were in the first group?
  1. 60
  2. 70
  3. 80
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 80.
30x = 40(x − 20) → x = 80.
124. The temperature in Murree at noon was 16.6°C. At midnight the temperature was 20.4°C lower. What was the temperature at midnight?
  1. −4.8°C
  2. −4.2°C
  3. −3.8°C
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) −3.8°C
125. Roni has 25 sweets and Tony has 55 sweets. How many sweets should Roni give to Tony so that Tony has four times as many sweets as Roni?
  1. 5
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (C) 9.
After giving x sweets: 55 + x = 4(25 − x). Thus x = 9.
126. How can the number 45 be divided into two parts such that four times one part is 9 less than five times the other?
  1. 20, 25
  2. 21, 24
  3. 19, 26
  4. None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: (B) 21, 24.
21 + 24 = 45 and 4 × 24 = 96, while 5 × 21 − 9 = 96.

General Abilities, Science & Current Affairs — Questions 124–200

124. The temperature measured in Murree at noon was 16.6°C. At midnight temperature was 20.4°C lower. What was the temperature at midnight?

(A) −4.8°C

(B) −4.2°C

(C) −3.8°C

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) −3.8°C

125. Roni has 25 sweets and Tony has 55 sweets. How many sweets should Roni give to Tony so that Tony has four times as many sweets as Roni?

(A) 5

(B) 7

(C) 9

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (D) None of these
Let Roni give x sweets: 55 + x = 4(25 − x), giving x = 5. Therefore, the correct answer is actually (A) 5.

126. How can the number 45 be divided into two parts such that four times one part is 9 less than 5 times the other?

(A) 20, 25

(B) 21, 24

(C) 19, 26

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) 20, 25

127. A man is 5 times as old as his son now. Four years ago, the product of their ages was 52. What are their present ages?

(A) 8 and 40

(B) 7 and 35

(C) 6 and 30

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) 8 and 40

128. John is 4 years older than David and Joe is 2 years younger than David. If the sum of their ages is 41, how old will John be in 8 years’ time?

(A) 24

(B) 25

(C) 17

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) 25

129. What integer values can n have, given the inequality −7 < 4n ≤ 8?

(A) −1, 0, 1, 2

(B) −2, −1, 0, 1, 2

(C) −6, −5, −4, −3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) −1, 0, 1, 2

130. A student spends 15% of his scholarship grant on food and 45% on tuition. After spending 50% of the remaining grant on his hostel fee, he is left with Rs. 8,000 only. How much is his scholarship grant?

(A) Rs. 32,000

(B) Rs. 40,000

(C) Rs. 45,000

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Rs. 40,000

131. Find the value of a² + b², when a + b = 5 and ab = 6.

(A) 37

(B) 25

(C) 13

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) 13

132. When the equation y = x² + 8x − 5 is written in the form y = (x + a)² + b, then a is:

(A) 8

(B) 5

(C) 4

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) 4

133. Find the value of x, when A = (2π + y)x², where A = 36 and y = 2.77.

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 2

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) 2

134. At a football match, the price of a child ticket is Rs. 240 less than the adult ticket. There are 18,500 adults and 2,500 children attending the match. Total amount paid for tickets is Rs. 41,400,000. What is the price of one adult ticket?

(A) Rs. 2460

(B) Rs. 1940

(C) Rs. 2000

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Rs. 2000

135. Name the regular polygon that has an exterior angle of 36°.

(A) Pentagon

(B) Hexagon

(C) Decagon

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Decagon

136. What is the perimeter of a semi-circle lake having a radius of 700 m?

(A) 127.4 km

(B) 3.6 km

(C) 2.9 km

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) 3.6 km

137. What is the total surface area of a cylinder having a radius of 3.5 cm and height 5.5 cm?

(A) 211.5 cm²

(B) 198 cm²

(C) 121 cm²

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) 198 cm²

138. The lights and brakes of 30 bicycles were tested. 27 bicycles passed the lights and 21 passed the brakes test. The lights and brakes both failed on one bicycle. How many bicycles passed both tests?

(A) 19

(B) 21

(C) 20

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) 19

139. A box contains 8 red, 6 green and 7 blue toys. One toy is randomly picked. What is the probability that the toy picked is neither red nor green?

(A) 7/21

(B) 14/21

(C) 7/14

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) 7/21

140. P is the brother of Q and R. S is mother of R, and T is father of P. Which of the following statements is not exactly true?

(A) T is Q’s father

(B) P is S’s son

(C) S is P’s mother

(D) Q is T’s son

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (D) Q is T’s son

141. Arrange the given words in the order that they occur in the dictionary.

1. Apparent

2. Apostate

3. Appoint

4. Apparel

(A) 2, 1, 4, 3

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1

(C) 4, 1, 2, 3

(D) 2, 4, 1, 3

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (D) 2, 4, 1, 3

142. Adil, Badar, Salma, Dawood and Mehak each have different amounts of money. Saima has more money than only Mehak; Badar has more money than Dawood but less than Adil. Who among them has the highest amount of money?

(A) Badar

(B) Dawood

(C) Adil

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Adil

143. A got more points than B but less than C. D got less points than E but more than A. If C gets less than D, then who gets the highest points?

(A) D

(B) E

(C) C

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) E

144. Given: PQS, QRT, RSU, STV… What should follow?

(A) TUW

(B) SUV

(C) STU

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) TUW

145. A clock is placed on a table such that at 6:00 pm the hour hand points to North-East. In which direction will the minute hand point at 9:15 pm?

(A) South-East

(B) North-West

(C) South-West

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) North-West

146. The weights of 4 boxes are 20 kg, 30 kg, 50 kg and 70 kg. If a combination of boxes is made using each box only once, then the total weight of the combination cannot be:

(A) 170 kg

(B) 160 kg

(C) 150 kg

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) 160 kg

147. The positions of the first and sixth digits in the number 5109238674 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of second and seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which one of the following will be the third digit from the right end after the rearrangement?

(A) 9

(B) 0

(C) 6

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) 6

148. 16 men and 12 women can complete a work in 20 days. 18 women can complete the same work in 40 days. In how many days will 12 men and 27 women complete the same work?

(A) 16

(B) 18

(C) 21

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) 16

149. Statement: Research reports that though Vitamin C present in fresh fruits and vegetables is beneficial for the human body, capsule Vitamin C does not have the same effect. Which sentence would logically come next?

(i) The sale of capsule Vitamin C should be banned.

(ii) People should be encouraged to take fresh fruits and vegetables to meet the body’s requirement of Vitamin C.

(A) Only (i) follows

(B) Only (ii) follows

(C) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows

(D) Both (i) and (ii) follow

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Only (ii) follows

150. What is the next term in the series? 11, 20, 35, 56, 83

(A) 108

(B) 116

(C) 122

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) 116

151. If output voltage is greater than input voltage, then transformer is:

(A) Step up

(B) Step down

(C) Faulty

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) Step up

152. The voltage signal which is generated by a microphone is called:

(A) Digital

(B) Analogue

(C) Hybrid

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Analogue

153. The third most common gas found in the air we breathe is called:

(A) Hydrogen

(B) Neon

(C) Argon

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Argon

154. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wavelength is:

(A) Ultraviolet

(B) Radio waves

(C) Infrared

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Radio waves

155. The most dangerous type of radiation is:

(A) Alpha radiation

(B) Beta radiation

(C) Gamma radiation

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Gamma radiation

156. Solar energy is radiated in the form of:

(A) Electromagnetic waves

(B) Transverse waves

(C) Infrared waves

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) Electromagnetic waves

157. The study of human body cells is called:

(A) Physiology

(B) Cytology

(C) Mycology

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Cytology

158. Excessive bleeding during an injury is a deficiency of:

(A) Vitamin B

(B) Vitamin K

(C) Vitamin E

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Vitamin K

159. Which fuel is used in gas welding?

(A) Acetylene

(B) Methane

(C) Ethylene

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) Acetylene

160. Drum printers belong to which of the following categories?

(A) Ink jet printer

(B) Laser printer

(C) Line printer

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Line printer

161. Machine learning is a sub-area of:

(A) Hardware Engineering

(B) Artificial Intelligence

(C) Cyber forensics

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Artificial Intelligence

162. Which of the following can be classified as a renewable energy source?

(A) Geothermal energy

(B) Tidal energy

(C) Biomass energy

(D) All of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (D) All of these

163. How do scientists know that the Earth’s core is made up of metal?

(A) The density of the surface layer of Earth is much less than its average density.

(B) The Earth’s rotation speed indicates its core structure.

(C) The density of the surface layer of Earth is greater than its total density.

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) The density of the surface layer of Earth is much less than its average density.

164. Maintenance of soil fertility without addition of extra nutrition is due to:

(A) Floods

(B) Crop residue

(C) Microbial activity

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Microbial activity

165. Nanocomposite materials are useful in the food industry as they prevent packaged food from damage due to:

(A) Oxygen

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Moisture

(D) All of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (D) All of these

166. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Water-soluble vitamins cannot be stored in the body.

(B) Fat-soluble vitamins can be stored in the body.

(C) The body can absorb more fat-soluble vitamins than required.

(D) All of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (D) All of these

167. What global agreement, signed in 2015, aimed to limit global warming to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels?

(A) Kyoto Protocol

(B) Paris Agreement

(C) Copenhagen Accord

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Paris Agreement

168. Which international organization or group is responsible for the implementation of the B3W Initiative?

(A) United Nations (UN)

(B) Group of Seven (G7)

(C) NATO

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Group of Seven (G7)

169. China gave a peace plan for the Ukraine war in 2023. How many points were included in China’s peace plan?

(A) 6

(B) 10

(C) 12

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) 12

170. What term describes the use of information warfare, disinformation, and other means to manipulate and undermine the influence of other countries?

(A) Soft power

(B) Sharp power

(C) Smart power

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Sharp power

171. The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a free trade agreement among the nations of:

(A) North America

(B) Europe

(C) Asia-Pacific

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Asia-Pacific

172. The AIIB (Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank) was established by:

(A) Asian Development Bank

(B) ASEAN

(C) Group of Seven (G7) countries

(D) China and some other Asian countries

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (D) China and some other Asian countries

173. What does the “I2-U2” alliance stand for?

(A) India-Israel-Ukraine-US

(B) India-Israel-US-UAE

(C) Italy-Israel-Ukraine-UK

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) India-Israel-US-UAE

174. “G-2 or Group of Two” is an informal diplomacy between:

(A) Germany and Greece

(B) US and China

(C) Germany and Ghana

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) US and China

175. Which country hosted the regular meeting of the SCO Foreign Ministers Council in 2023?

(A) China

(B) India

(C) Uzbekistan

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) India

176. The Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) consists of two main components: the Silk Road Economic Belt and:

(A) The Desert Oasis Corridor

(B) The Himalayan Trade Route

(C) The 21st Century Maritime Silk Road

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) The 21st Century Maritime Silk Road

177. When was the “Made in China 2025” strategic plan initiated?

(A) 2010

(B) 2015

(C) 2020

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) 2015

178. Djibouti is strategically located at the mouth of which sea?

(A) Mediterranean Sea

(B) South China Sea

(C) Red Sea

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Red Sea

179. The Horn of Africa (HoA) is located in which part of the African continent?

(A) Eastern Africa

(B) Western Africa

(C) Northern Africa

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) Eastern Africa

180. The Southeast Asia Treaty Organization (SEATO) formally came to an end in:

(A) 1977

(B) 1988

(C) 1991

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) 1977

181. What does “CARICOM” stand for?

(A) Canada, Austria, Romania, India-Community

(B) Caribbean Community

(C) Canada, Argentina, Russia, Italy-Community

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Caribbean Community

182. What does BECA stand for?

(A) Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement

(B) Bilateral Exchange and Cooperation Accord

(C) Basic Economic and Cultural Agreement

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement

183. Which nation holds the distinction of being the top investor in Africa by 2023?

(A) United States

(B) China

(C) Russia

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) United States

184. Which important shipping lane, connecting the Arabian Sea to the Persian Gulf, passes through Pakistani waters and is vital for international trade?

(A) Strait of Hormuz

(B) Gulf of Aden

(C) Bab-el-Mandeb

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) Strait of Hormuz

185. Which U.S. military operation in 2011 resulted in the death of Osama bin Laden in Pakistan?

(A) Operation Enduring Freedom

(B) Operation Eradicating Terrorism

(C) Operation Neptune Spear

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Operation Neptune Spear

186. The world’s highest battlefield, the Siachen Glacier, is located in which mountain range?

(A) Himalayas

(B) Karakoram

(C) Hindu Kush

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Karakoram

187. In 2017, Pakistan became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO). What is the primary purpose of the SCO?

(A) To facilitate trade amongst member countries

(B) To establish a common currency for member states

(C) To promote regional cooperation and stability in Eurasia

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) To promote regional cooperation and stability in Eurasia

188. Which Pakistani diplomat served as the President of the United Nations (UN) General Assembly?

(A) Feroz Khan Noon

(B) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

(C) Muhammad Zafrulla Khan

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Muhammad Zafrulla Khan

189. What is the length of the Batura Glacier, making it one of the largest and longest glaciers outside the polar regions?

(A) 57 kilometers

(B) 61 kilometers

(C) 64 kilometers

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) 57 kilometers

190. Which island is known as Pakistan’s largest island and is sometimes referred to as “Jazira Haft Talar,” meaning the island of seven mountains?

(A) Manora Island

(B) Astola Island

(C) Churna Island

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) Astola Island

191. How many members of the National Assembly must sign the notice of no confidence for it to be valid?

(A) At least five percent (5%)

(B) At least ten percent (10%)

(C) At least twenty percent (20%)

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) At least twenty percent (20%)

192. Pakistan’s position on the Fissile Material Cut-off Treaty (FMCT) is that:

(A) Pre-existing stockpiles should be included in the draft of the FMCT before negotiations.

(B) Ban on nuclear testing be lifted before signing of the draft.

(C) A criteria-based approach be applied to the NSG before finalizing the FMCT.

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) Pre-existing stockpiles should be included in the draft of the FMCT before negotiations.

193. As of 2023, Pakistan is included in the roster of FATF.

(A) Black

(B) Grey

(C) White

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) White

194. The Muslim League observed “Direct Action Day” on August 16, 1946, which led to communal violence in:

(A) Delhi

(B) Lahore

(C) Kolkata

(D) Mumbai

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Kolkata

195. Who wrote the book “Train to Pakistan,” which is set during the Partition of India in 1947?

(A) Bapsi Sidhwa

(B) Amrita Pritam

(C) Khushwant Singh

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Khushwant Singh

196. In the Bogra Formula, the proposed lower house of parliament was named as:

(A) The House of Commons

(B) The House of People

(C) National Assembly

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (B) The House of People

197. Lenin Prize was awarded to:

(A) Habib Jalib

(B) Ahmed Faraz

(C) Faiz Ahmed Faiz

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (C) Faiz Ahmed Faiz

198. After India’s Independence, Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad was appointed as:

(A) Minister of Education

(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(C) Minister of Finance

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) Minister of Education

199. Mujeeb-ur-Rehman presented his Six Points in:

(A) 1966

(B) 1959

(C) 1968

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) 1966

200. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Pakistan is appointed by the:

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Majority vote in the Parliament

(D) None of these

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: (A) President

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