CSS MPT Past Paper 2026– Solved MCQs
ISLAMIC STUDIES
1. In which Surah are the rules of distribution of Mal-e-Ghaneemat (war booty) mentioned?
- (a) Surah Al-Anfal
- (b) Surah At-Tawbah
- (c) Surah An-Nisa
- (d) None of these
2. In which Surah is the killing of children prohibited due to fear of hunger or poverty?
- (a) Surah Al-An’am
- (b) Surah Al-Mu’minun
- (c) Surah Al-Hujurat
- (d) None of these
3. In how many Surahs are the Huroof-e-Muqatta’at (disjointed letters) found?
- (a) 20
- (b) 25
- (c) 29
- (d) None of these
4. How many times is the name “Muhammad (SAW)” mentioned in the Holy Quran?
- (a) 4
- (b) 5
- (c) 6
- (d) None of these
5. Which Urdu book on the Seerat-e-Rasool (SAW) is written without dots?
- (a) Rasool Alam
- (b) Hadi Alam
- (c) Sarwar Alam
- (d) None of these
6. For which Surah did the Holy Prophet (SAW) say, “It made me older”?
- (a) Surah Hud
- (b) Surah Samood
- (c) Surah Aad
- (d) None of these
7. Who is the author of the book “Sunnat Khair-ul-Anam”?
- (a) Qazi Salman Mansoorpuri
- (b) Peer Muhammad Karam Shah
- (c) Mufti Muhammad Shafi
- (d) None of these
8. The Hadith whose chain of narration extends up to the Prophet (SAW) is called:
- (a) Maroof
- (b) Mauqoof
- (c) Qudsi
- (d) None of these
9. Who is described by the Holy Prophet (SAW) as being more honorable than the Kaabah?
- (a) Safa and Marwa
- (b) Jabal-e-Noor
- (c) Momin
- (d) Shaheed
10. What was the last Ghazwa of the Holy Prophet (SAW)?
- (a) Khyber
- (b) Tabuk
- (c) Hunain
- (d) None of these
11. What was the real name of the Holy Prophet’s (SAW) uncle, Abu Talib (RA)?
- (a) Abdullah
- (b) Abd Manaf
- (c) Abd Kaaba
- (d) None of these
12. The Ghazwa of Hunain was fought against which tribe?
- (a) Aws
- (b) Khazraj
- (c) Hawazi
- (d) Kinana
13. Which Muslim scientist is credited with describing the concept of blood circulation?
- (a) Ibn al-Nafis
- (b) Ibn al-Haytham
- (c) Ibn al-Baitar
- (d) None of these
14. The battlefield of Badr is situated near the city of:
- (a) Makkah
- (b) Jeddah
- (c) Taif
- (d) None of these
15. Where was the election of Caliph Abu Bakr (RA) held?
- (a) House of Abu Bakr (RA)
- (b) Masjid-e-Nabawi
- (c) Masjid-e-Haram
- (d) None of these
16. Which commander was appointed by the Holy Prophet (SAW) and was not removed by Hazrat Abu Bakr (RA)?
- (a) Usama bin Zaid (RA)
- (b) Khalid bin Waleed (RA)
- (c) Tariq bin Ziyad
- (d) Maaz bin Jabal (RA)
17. In the books of Islamic jurisprudence, the Law of Inheritance is called:
- (a) Ilm-ul-Fiqh
- (b) Ilm-ul-Arooz
- (c) Ilm-ul-Faraiz
- (d) None of these
18. Which Sahabi is known as “Imam-ul-Fuqaha”?
- (a) Hazrat Ali (RA)
- (b) Abdullah bin Abbas (RA)
- (c) Maaz bin Jabal (RA)
- (d) None of these
19. When a husband compares his wife to a woman who is permanently forbidden to him, that act is called:
- (a) Khula
- (b) Ila
- (c) Zihar
- (d) None of these
20. What is the term for a consensus in which some scholars express their opinion while others remain silent?
- (a) Ijma Sukuti
- (b) Ijma Qawli
- (c) Ijma Fi’li
- (d) Ijma Taqriri
URDU
21. “وارث” کی مؤنث کیا ہے؟
- (a) وارثہ
- (b) وارثی
- (c) وراثت
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
22. قرآن مجید کی پہلی سات طویل سورتوں کو کیا کہتے ہیں؟
- (a) سبع مثانی
- (b) سبع طوال
- (c) سبع معلقہ
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
23. “مائدہ” کا کیا مطلب ہے؟
- (a) دسترخوان
- (b) الائچی
- (c) بھٹی
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
24. نظم “مسجدِ قرطبہ” علامہ اقبال کے کس مجموعۂ کلام میں شامل ہے؟
- (a) بانگِ درا
- (b) بالِ جبریل
- (c) ضربِ کلیم
- (d) ارمغانِ حجاز
25. محاورہ “تتر بتر ہونا” کا مطلب کیا ہے؟
- (a) اکٹھا ہونا
- (b) بکھر جانا
- (c) خاموش ہونا
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
26. “عصبات” سے کون سے رشتہ دار مراد ہیں؟
- (a) ننھیالی رشتہ دار
- (b) مردانہ نسب والے رشتہ دار
- (c) سسرالی رشتہ دار
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
27. “دیوان” کی جمع کیا ہے؟
- (a) دیوانے
- (b) دواوین
- (c) دیوانیں
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
28. وہ اسم جو کسی نام کی جگہ استعمال ہو، اسے کیا کہتے ہیں؟
- (a) اسمِ ظرف
- (b) اسمِ ضمیر
- (c) اسمِ صفت
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
29. “عروج” کا متضاد کیا ہے؟
- (a) ترقی
- (b) زوال
- (c) بلندی
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
30. “مشاہرہ” کا ہم معنی لفظ کون سا ہے؟
- (a) مشہور
- (b) تنخواہ
- (c) مشاورت
- (d) قیمت
31. “بکری” کا مذکر کیا ہے؟
- (a) بکرا
- (b) بکریاں
- (c) بکر
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
32. اردو زبان کا رسم الخط کیا کہلاتا ہے؟
- (a) نسخ
- (b) نستعلیق
- (c) کوفی
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
33. “مقدمہ شعر و شاعری” کے مصنف کون ہیں؟
- (a) سر سید احمد خان
- (b) الطاف حسین حالی
- (c) شبلی نعمانی
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
34. مرزا غالب کا اصل نام کیا تھا؟
- (a) اسد اللہ خان
- (b) نجم الدولہ
- (c) مرزا نوشہ
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
35. کلام میں متضاد الفاظ کے استعمال کو کون سی صنعت کہتے ہیں؟
- (a) صنعتِ تضاد
- (b) صنعتِ تکرار
- (c) صنعتِ ابہام
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
36. “Office Memorandum” کو دفتری اردو میں کیا کہتے ہیں؟
- (a) دفتری یادداشت
- (b) یاد دہانی کا خط
- (c) نیم سرکاری خط
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
37. “Minutes of the Meeting” کا درست اردو متبادل کیا ہے؟
- (a) رودادِ اجلاس
- (b) جلسے کے اوقات
- (c) کارروائیِ اجلاس
- (d) اطلاع نامہ
38. “Better late than never” کا درست ترجمہ کیا ہے؟
- (a) دیر آید درست آید
- (b) جلدی کا کام شیطان کا
- (c) وقت کسی کا انتظار نہیں کرتا
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
39. “مثنوی” کا تعلق کس صنفِ ادب سے ہے؟
- (a) نثر
- (b) شاعری
- (c) ڈراما
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
40. “File” کو دفتری اردو میں کیا کہتے ہیں؟
- (a) مصل
- (b) مثل
- (c) مسل
- (d) ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
ENGLISH
Identify the SYNONYM for the given word.
41. Scraggy:
- (a) Gaunt
- (b) Underweight
- (c) Slender
- (d) Spindly
42. Catacomb:
- (a) Oasis
- (b) Haven
- (c) Crypt
- (d) Shrine
43. Sobriquet:
- (a) Nickname
- (b) Formal name
- (c) Byname
- (d) Pseudonym
44. Metanoia:
- (a) Repentance
- (b) Conversion
- (c) Prostration
- (d) Submission
45. Verisimilitude:
- (a) Realism
- (b) Artifice
- (c) Conceit
- (d) Actuality
Identify the ANTONYM for the given word.
46. Bastion:
- (a) Defenseless
- (b) Deformed
- (c) Destroyed
- (d) Demolished
47. Egregious:
- (a) Flagrant
- (b) Inconspicuous
- (c) Audacious
- (d) Blunt
48. Melange:
- (a) Harmonious
- (b) Homogeneous
- (c) Amorphous
- (d) Anomalous
49. Solipsist:
- (a) Self-centered
- (b) Self-absorbed
- (c) Selfless
- (d) Self-stylist
50. Lionize:
- (a) Mistreat
- (b) Vilify
- (c) Lampoon
- (d) Ridicule
Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.
51. Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence about a new policy:
- (A) The new policy has been implemented, nor has it been communicated to the staff.
- (B) The new policy has been implemented, but it has not been communicated to the staff.
- (C) The new policy has been implemented, yet it has not been communicated to the staff.
- (D) The new policy has been implemented, so it has not been communicated to the staff.
52. Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:
- (A) Walking down the street, the trees seemed to sway in the wind.
- (B) Walking down the street, I noticed the trees swaying in the wind.
- (C) Walking down the street, the wind caused the trees to sway.
- (D) Walking down the street, the swaying trees were noticed.
53. Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:
- (A) The company values innovation, teamwork, and to take risks.
- (B) The company values innovation, teamwork, and taking risks.
- (C) The company values innovation, teamwork, and risk-taking.
- (D) The company values innovation, teamwork, and risks.
54. Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:
- (A) These are the best restaurants in town, but those are too expensive.
- (B) This are the best restaurants in town, but those are too expensive.
- (C) These is the best restaurant in town, but those are too expensive.
- (D) This is the best restaurant in town, but those are too expensive.
55. Choose the most grammatically and logically appropriate sentence:
- (A) I wish I could find a way to make amends and secure a better afterlife.
- (B) I hope that my life will become more exciting in the time I have left.
- (C) I fear that my lack of excitement will lead to a dull eternity.
- (D) I wonder if there’s still time to make a positive impact and change my fate.
56. Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence about Baudrillard’s concern with simulation:
- (A) Simulation is Baudrillard’s main concern, as even democracy needs exhibitionism and media twisting; authoritarianism is part of it.
- (B) Simulation is Baudrillard’s main concern, even democracy needs exhibitionism and media twisting, so authoritarianism is part of it.
- (C) Simulation is Baudrillard’s main concern, as democracy needs exhibitionism and media twisting, so authoritarianism is part of it.
- (D) Simulation is Baudrillard’s main concern, as even democracy needs exhibitionism and media twisting, because authoritarianism is part of it.
57. Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence about Dalit literature and resistance:
- (A) Dalit literature upholds the idea that resistance cannot be achieved by words alone, so the struggle for equality is a noteworthy quest.
- (B) Dalit literature upholds the idea that resistance can be achieved by words alone, so the struggle for equality is a noteworthy quest.
- (C) Dalit literature upholds the idea that resistance cannot be achieved by words alone, but the struggle for equality is a noteworthy quest.
- (D) Dalit literature upholds the idea that resistance cannot be achieved by words alone, and the struggle for equality is a noteworthy quest.
58. Identify the sentence with a grammatical error:
- (A) The new employee, along with the rest of the team, were responsible for the project’s failure.
- (B) Having studied English for five years, I find the grammar rules…
- (C) The report, whose findings were groundbreaking, was published in a prestigious journal.
- (D) By the time the manager arrived, the employees had been working…
Note: Options (B) and (D) are incomplete in the supplied source.
59. Choose the sentence with the incorrect use of the coordinate clause:
- (A) She is a great singer, but she is also a great dancer.
- (B) I went to the store and bought some milk.
- (C) I love reading books, and I also love writing stories.
- (D) He is a good teacher, but his classes are boring sometimes.
Note: All four sentences appear grammatically acceptable as supplied.
60. Identify the sentence with the incorrect use of the verb modifier:
- (A) She can barely speak French.
- (B) He has almost finished his homework.
- (C) They will have been married for ten years soon.
- (D) The company has nearly doubled its profits last year.
61. Identify the sentence with the incorrect use of compound adjectives:
- (A) I love reading well-written books.
- (B) The teacher gave us a lot of hard-to-solve problems.
- (C) The new employee was very full of energy.
- (D) The hotel room was new and decorated.
62. Identify the sentence with the incorrect use of conjunctive words:
- (A) She studied hard for the exam; however, she still failed.
- (B) I went to the store, bought milk, but forgot to buy eggs.
- (C) I wanted to go to the beach, but my parents wouldn’t let me.
- (D) He is a great singer, and he can also dance.
63. Identify the sentence with incorrect use of the hyphen:
- (A) The company’s well-known CEO spoke at the conference.
- (B) The self-portrait was painted by a famous-artist.
- (C) The co-pilot navigated the plane through turbulent weather.
- (D) The full-time employee received benefits.
64. Identify the sentence with incorrect use of conversational turn-taking and transition:
- (A) I’m going to the store, but I need to get milk.
- (B) I love reading books. Also I love watching movies.
- (C) I’m tired; therefore, I’m going to bed.
- (D) I went to the party; however, I didn’t have fun.
65. Identify the sentence with the correct use of raising constructions:
- (A) The report recommends adopting a new policy.
- (B) The teacher believes exceeding the student’s abilities.
- (C) The data indicates to show a significant result.
- (D) What seems the problem solves the manager.
66. Identify the sentence with a semantic error:
- (A) The dog chased its tail with a spoon.
- (B) The sun is shining in the sky.
- (C) The author is writing the book.
- (D) The rain is falling downwards.
67. Identify the sentence with correct punctuation usage:
- (A) My favorite hobbies include reading knitting and cooking.
- (B) It’s raining outside, however, I brought my umbrella.
- (C) The concert was amazing — I’ve never heard such talent!
- (D) Although, the lecture was long; therefore it was informative.
68. Identify the sentence with the correct use of the colon:
- (A) I have three goals for the year, lose weight, save money, and travel.
- (B) The ingredients: for the cake are: flour, sugar, eggs, and vanilla.
- (C) She had one question: when is the deadline?
- (D) He enjoys various outdoor activities: such as hiking, camping, and fishing.
69. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct:
- (A) Neither of the boys have done his homework.
- (B) Neither of the boys has done his homework.
- (C) Neither of the boys have done their homeworks.
- (D) Neither of the boy has done his homework.
ENGLISH / VERBAL REASONING
70. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct:
- (A) She has been living here since five years.
- (B) She is living here for five years.
- (C) She has been living here for five years.
- (D) She lives here since five years.
71. Identify the sentence with a grammatical error:
- (A) The physicist, along with her team, are conducting ground-breaking research.
- (B) Under such conditions, he…
- (C) The book, which has been read by millions, remains a classic.
- (D) Their commitment to excellence is evident in all that they do.
Note: Option (B) is incomplete in the supplied source.
72. Identify the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement:
- (A) The committee, consisting of experts in their respective fields…
- (B) Neither the professor nor her students have received their awards.
- (C) The phenomenon of quantum entanglement bewilders even…
- (D) The team’s performance have been consistently excellent.
73. The emperor advocated the expostulation _____ calamities and reanimate officeholders to point out the officials’ faults used for reference for the frequency of natural disasters _____ Yuan Dynasty.
- (A) on, in
- (B) about, in
- (C) at, at
- (D) over, inside
74. The museum is situated both _____ the square and _____ the library.
- (A) on, beneath
- (B) on, under
- (C) at, underneath
- (D) around, above
75. The pusillanimous politician’s lack of courage and conviction rocked _____ opportunism and cowardice, causing his supporters _____ lose faith in his ability to lead.
- (A) off, of
- (B) of, to
- (C) in, in
- (D) away, to
76. “Emit smoke from seven orifices” means:
- (A) To be very happy
- (B) To be extremely angry
- (C) To be very sad
- (D) None of these
77. “To sell wolf tickets” means:
- (A) To be honest and authentic
- (B) To talk tough but not back it up
- (C) To be weak and timid
- (D) To be intelligent and wise
78. “The carrots are cooked” means:
- (A) The situation is under control
- (B) The situation is hopeless
- (C) The situation is changing
- (D) The situation is improving
79. “Forty winks” means:
- (A) A long, deep sleep
- (B) A short nap or brief period of sleep
- (C) A period of wakefulness
- (D) A dream or vision
80. “As clear as a dumpling broth” means:
- (A) Something that is very clear and easy to understand
- (B) Something that is completely unclear or confusing
- (C) Something that is moderately clear
- (D) Something that is partially clear
Reading Comprehension Passages
Passage No. 1
81. The word that would most accurately fit the blank at the end of the passage is:
- (A) Pealing
- (B) Jarring
- (C) Intimate
- (D) Distant
82. What is the dominant sensory experience in the passage?
- (A) Visual
- (B) Auditory
- (C) Olfactory
- (D) Tactile
83. What is the effect of the “momentary Japanese effect” created by the shadows of birds in flight?
- (A) It adds to the sense of stillness and calm
- (B) It creates a sense of movement and energy
- (C) It emphasizes the beauty of nature
- (D) It highlights the artificiality of the scene
84. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
- (A) The city’s beauty and music
- (B) The city’s noise and chaos
- (C) A sense of distance and removal
- (D) The city’s power and dominance
85. The underlined word “tremulous,” as used in this passage, most nearly means:
- (A) Trembling
- (B) Torpid
- (C) Wavering
- (D) Infirm
Passage No. 2
86. If you go to lunch at Dilly’s Deli, you could expect to see:
- (A) Couples dining together
- (B) The fire marshal
- (C) A long line of customers
- (D) Homemade pie
87. The passage suggests that if you eat lunch at Dilly’s Deli, you should expect to:
- (A) Be called out by the restaurant’s staff
- (B) Place your order with the waiter who comes to your table
- (C) Dress warmly
- (D) Carry your own food to your table
88. Which of the following illustrates the restaurant critic’s opinion of the food at Dilly’s Deli?
- (A) “At Dilly’s, you sit at one of four long tables.”
- (B) “At lunchtime, Dilly’s Deli is so crowded, I wondered when the…”
89. The main purpose of the restaurant review is to:
- (A) Tell people about the presence of truck drivers at Dilly’s Deli
- (B) Make fun of couples who argue in public
- (C) Recommend the hamburger steak special
- (D) Warn people that Dilly’s Deli tends to be crowded
90. The role of the “fire marshal,” as mentioned in the passage, appears to be:
- (A) Checking the hygienic condition in the restaurant
- (B) Checking overcrowding at public places
- (C) Ensuring disciplined conduct of the restaurant’s staff
- (D) None of these
MATHEMATICS & GENERAL ABILITY
91. Evaluate: 41/2 × 42 − 40.
- (A) 24
- (B) 28
- (C) 31
- (D) None of these
Solution: 41/2 = 2, 42 = 16, and 40 = 1. Therefore, 2 × 16 − 1 = 31.
92. What is k, given that 27k = 9?
- (A) 1/3
- (B) 2/3
- (C) 4/3
- (D) None of these
Solution: 27 = 33 and 9 = 32. Thus, 33k = 32, so 3k = 2 and k = 2/3.
93. Cows consume food in 150 days. If 10 cows are removed, the food lasts 160 days. What was the original number of cows?
- (A) 150
- (B) 160
- (C) 100
- (D) None of these
Solution: Let the original number of cows be x. Then x × 150 = (x − 10) × 160. Hence, 150x = 160x − 1600, giving x = 160.
94. A train 99 m long takes 11 seconds to pass a station 231 m long. What is its speed in km/h?
- (A) 108
- (B) 75.6
- (C) 30
- (D) None of these
Solution: Total distance = 99 + 231 = 330 m. Speed = 330 ÷ 11 = 30 m/s = 30 × 18/5 = 108 km/h.
95. A, B, and C share $112. B gets $12 less than A, while C gets twice as much as B. How much does C get?
- (A) $34
- (B) $44
- (C) $50
- (D) None of these
Solution: Let B = x. Then A = x + 12 and C = 2x. Therefore, (x + 12) + x + 2x = 112, giving 4x = 100 and x = 25. Hence, C = $50.
96. Find the integer satisfying: four times the number subtracted from two times its square equals 15.
- (A) 3
- (B) −3
- (C) −5/2
- (D) None of these
Solution: 2x2 − 4x = 15, so 2x2 − 4x − 15 = 0. The solutions are not integers. Therefore, none of the listed integers satisfies the equation.
97. Zaid is 6 times as old as Zoya now. In 7 years, the sum of their ages will be 49. How old was Zaid when Zoya was born?
- (A) 25
- (B) 35
- (C) 42
- (D) None of these
Solution: Let Zoya’s present age be x. Zaid’s age = 6x. In 7 years, x + 7 + 6x + 7 = 49, so x = 5. Zaid is therefore 30 years old. When Zoya was born, Zaid was 30 − 5 = 25 years old.
98. Two consecutive positive numbers have a sum of squares that is 7 less than 120. Find the numbers.
- (A) 7, 8
- (B) 8, 9
- (C) 7, 9
- (D) None of these
Solution: 120 − 7 = 113. Since 72 + 82 = 49 + 64 = 113, the numbers are 7 and 8.
99. A light shop sold 25% of its lights and still had 1,500 lights left. How many lights were there in the beginning?
- (a) 2,500
- (b) 2,250
- (c) 2,000
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) 2,000
Solution: If 25% were sold, 75% remained.
75% of total = 1,500
Total = 1,500 ÷ 0.75 = 2,000.
100. Given x2 − 11x + 10 = 0, the values of x are:
- (a) −1, −10
- (b) −1, +10
- (c) +1, −10
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (d) None of these
Solution:
x2 − 11x + 10 = 0
(x − 1)(x − 10) = 0
Therefore, x = 1 or 10.
Since this combination is not given, the answer is (d) None of these.
101. The total cost of 5 markers and 1 pencil is Rs. 245, while the total cost of 3 markers and 3 pencils is Rs. 327. What is the cost of one marker?
- (a) Rs. 32
- (b) Rs. 34
- (c) Rs. 74
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Rs. 34
Solution:
Let the cost of one marker = x and one pencil = y.
5x + y = 245
3x + 3y = 327
Dividing the second equation by 3:
x + y = 109
Therefore, y = 109 − x.
5x + 109 − x = 245
4x = 136
x = 34.
102. The first term in a sequence is 1 and the second term is 5. From the third term onwards, each term is the arithmetic mean of all preceding terms. What is the 27th term in the sequence?
- (a) 2.5
- (b) 3
- (c) 5.5
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 3
Solution:
First term = 1, second term = 5.
Third term = (1 + 5) ÷ 2 = 3.
Once the sequence reaches 3, the arithmetic mean of all preceding terms remains 3. Therefore, every term from the third onward is 3.
Hence, the 27th term = 3.
103. A baker sells different types of cakes. Every small cake costs $x and every large cake costs $(2x + 3). The cost of 3 small lemon cakes and 2 large lemon cakes is $16.36. What is the cost of one small lemon cake?
- (a) $1.91
- (b) $1.48
- (c) $2.34
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) $1.48
Solution:
3x + 2(2x + 3) = 16.36
3x + 4x + 6 = 16.36
7x = 10.36
x = 10.36 ÷ 7 = $1.48.
104. If one angle of an isosceles triangle is 68°, the possible values of another angle are:
- (a) Any value between 68° and 180°
- (b) Any value between 68° and 112°
- (c) 44° or 68°
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) 44° or 68°
Solution:
Case 1: If 68° is the unequal angle, the other two angles are equal:
(180° − 68°) ÷ 2 = 56°.
Case 2: If 68° is one of the equal angles, the other equal angle is also 68°, and the third angle is:
180° − 68° − 68° = 44°.
Thus, another angle can be 44° or 68°.
105. The total perimeter of a semicircle is 20.6 cm. What is the approximate radius of the semicircle?
- (a) 4 cm
- (b) 5 cm
- (c) 6.6 cm
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (a) 4 cm
Solution:
Perimeter of a semicircle = πr + 2r.
Therefore:
(π + 2)r = 20.6
Using π ≈ 3.14:
r = 20.6 ÷ 5.14 ≈ 4 cm.
106. A water tank in the shape of a cuboid has a length of 1.5 metres and a width of 1.0 metre. How many litres of water are in the tank if the water is 60 centimetres deep?
- (a) 9,000 litres
- (b) 900 litres
- (c) 90 litres
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 900 litres
Solution:
Convert 60 cm = 0.6 m.
Volume = 1.5 × 1.0 × 0.6 = 0.9 m3.
Since 1 m3 = 1,000 litres:
0.9 × 1,000 = 900 litres.
107. The inner circumference of a circular race track is 440 m. If the width of the track is 14 m, what is the radius of the outer circle?
- (a) 70 m
- (b) 77 m
- (c) 84 m
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) 84 m
Solution:
Inner circumference = 2πr = 440.
Using π = 22/7:
r = 440 ÷ (44/7) = 70 m.
Outer radius = 70 + 14 = 84 m.
108. In a group of 200 people, 90 like tennis, while 108 like cricket and 46 like both tennis and cricket. How many people like neither tennis nor cricket?
- (a) 44
- (b) 48
- (c) 62
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 48
Solution:
People who like at least one = 90 + 108 − 46 = 152.
People who like neither = 200 − 152 = 48.
109. A museum receives 450 visitors every Monday, while only 120 visitors come on each of the remaining six days of the week. What is the daily average number of visitors in a 30-day month beginning on a Monday?
- (a) 164
- (b) 160
- (c) 175
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) 175
Solution:
A 30-day month beginning on Monday has 5 Mondays and 25 other days.
Visitors on Mondays = 5 × 450 = 2,250.
Visitors on other days = 25 × 120 = 3,000.
Total visitors = 2,250 + 3,000 = 5,250.
Daily average = 5,250 ÷ 30 = 175.
110. A is B’s daughter, C is B’s mother, D is B’s sister, and E is D’s son. How is A related to E?
- (a) Uncle
- (b) Granddaughter
- (c) Cousin
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Cousin
Solution:
A is B’s daughter.
D is B’s sister, so D is A’s aunt.
E is D’s son, making E A’s cousin.
Therefore, A is E’s cousin.
111. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother, and that girl’s father is my father’s son.” Whose photograph was it?
- (a) His father
- (b) His own
- (c) His daughter
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) His daughter
Solution:
The man has no brother, so “my father’s son” refers to the man himself.
Therefore, the girl’s father is the man.
Hence, the photograph is of his daughter.
112. A bus for Islamabad leaves every 52 minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry officer told a passenger that the bus had already left 16 minutes ago and that the next bus would leave at 08:15 p.m. At what time did the enquiry officer give the information?
- (a) 07:23 p.m.
- (b) 07:39 p.m.
- (c) 07:49 p.m.
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 07:39 p.m.
Solution:
The previous bus left 52 minutes before the next bus.
The previous bus had left 16 minutes before the enquiry.
Therefore, the enquiry was given 52 − 16 = 36 minutes before the next bus.
08:15 p.m. − 36 minutes = 07:39 p.m.
113. Pearl Tower is taller than Sky Tower but shorter than Ocean Tower. Ocean Tower and MCB Tower are of the same height. Pearl Tower is shorter than Bahria Tower. Which one is the second shortest among all the buildings?
- (a) Pearl Tower
- (b) Sky Tower
- (c) Ocean Tower
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (a) Pearl Tower
Solution:
Sky Tower < Pearl Tower < Ocean Tower = MCB Tower.
Pearl Tower is also shorter than Bahria Tower.
Therefore, Sky Tower is the shortest and Pearl Tower is the second shortest.
114. Peter is east of Tom, and Tom is north of John. Mike is south of John. In which direction is Mike from Peter?
- (a) South-East
- (b) South-West
- (c) South
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) South-West
Solution:
Peter is east of Tom.
Tom is north of John.
Mike is south of John.
Therefore, Mike is west and south of Peter, i.e. South-West.
115. On a particular school day, a student will take classes of six subjects—Geography, History, Jurisprudence, Kinetics, Literature, and Mechanics. Each class will be taken only once on that day and their order is subject to the following conditions: (A) Geography has to be immediately after History. (B) Kinetics has to be earlier than Geography. (C) Mechanics has to be earlier than Literature. (D) Mechanics has to be either immediately before or immediately after Jurisprudence. If Literature is earlier than Kinetics, then History must be in the following position:
- (a) First
- (b) Third
- (c) Fifth
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Third
Solution:
Let H = History, G = Geography, J = Jurisprudence, K = Kinetics, L = Literature, and M = Mechanics.
H must immediately precede G, and K must be before G. Also, M must be adjacent to J and M must be before L.
If L is earlier than K, the valid arrangement requires H and G to occupy positions 3 and 4 respectively.
Therefore, History must be in the third position.
116. Six girls are sitting in a circle facing the centre. R is between N and S. P is next to the left of V. R is 4th to the right of P. What is the position of T?
- (a) To the immediate right of V
- (b) Second to the left of P
- (c) Second to the right of R
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (a) To the immediate right of V
Solution:
Since all girls face the centre, left and right are determined from their facing direction.
Place V at a fixed position. P is immediately to the left of V. R is 4th to the right of P. Since R is between N and S, the remaining position is occupied by T.
T is therefore immediately to the right of V.
117. Roni and Willy had a 100 m race. Roni covered the distance in 45 seconds and Willy covered the distance in 36 seconds. Willy beats Roni by how much distance?
- (a) 20 m
- (b) 22.5 m
- (c) 25 m
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (a) 20 m
Solution:
Roni’s speed = 100 ÷ 45 m/s.
In 36 seconds, Roni covers:
(100 ÷ 45) × 36 = 80 m.
Willy covers 100 m in the same 36 seconds.
Difference = 100 − 80 = 20 m.
118. What are a and b in the following sequence: a, 13, 9, 3, −5, −15, b?
- (a) 15, −25
- (b) 15, −27
- (c) 16, −28
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 15, −27
Solution:
Differences are:
13 − a, −4, −6, −8, −10, b − (−15).
The differences decrease by 2 each time: −2, −4, −6, −8, −10, −12.
Therefore:
13 − a = −2 → a = 15.
b − (−15) = −12 → b = −27.
Hence, a = 15 and b = −27.
119. What is the sum of the prime numbers less than 21?
- (a) 58
- (b) 64
- (c) 77
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) 77
Solution:
Prime numbers less than 21 are:
2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19.
Sum = 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11 + 13 + 17 + 19 = 77.
120. Old-generation people were born between 1965 and 1981. They can do most tasks independently. Some people call them the Entrepreneurial Generation. The conclusion that follows logically from the above statements is:
- (a) They have a natural tendency to be self-employed
- (b) They work harder than any recent generation
- (c) They require some assistance to do tasks
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (d) None of these
Solution:
The statements only say that this generation can perform most tasks independently and that some people call them the “Entrepreneurial Generation.”
They do not logically establish that they have a natural tendency to be self-employed.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) None of these.
121. The expression 3(−4 × 5 − 6) is equal to:
- (a) 12
- (b) −78
- (c) −15
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) −78
Solution:
−4 × 5 = −20.
−20 − 6 = −26.
3 × (−26) = −78.
122. Arrange the following in order of size, from smallest to largest: (i) 0.52 (ii) 0.5 (iii) 0.53 (iv) ∛0.5.
- (a) iii, i, ii, iv
- (b) iv, ii, i, iii
- (c) ii, i, iii, iv
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (a) iii, i, ii, iv
Solution:
(i) 0.52 = 0.25
(ii) 0.5 = 0.5
(iii) 0.53 = 0.125
(iv) ∛0.5 ≈ 0.794
Therefore, from smallest to largest:
iii, i, ii, iv.
123. Forest workers plant 200 trees in one month (30 days). When 20 workers were sent away, the remaining workers planted 200 trees in 40 days. How many workers were there in the first group?
- (a) 60
- (b) 70
- (c) 80
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) 80
Solution:
Let the original number of workers be x.
Since the same amount of work is done:
30x = 40(x − 20)
30x = 40x − 800
10x = 800
x = 80.
Therefore, there were 80 workers in the first group.
124. The temperature measured in Murree at noon was 16.6°C. At midnight, the temperature was 20.4°C lower. What was the temperature at midnight?
- (a) −3.8°C
- (b) −4.2°C
- (c) −4.8°C
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (a) −3.8°C
Solution:
Midnight temperature = 16.6 − 20.4
= −3.8°C.
125. Roni has 25 sweets and Tony has 55 sweets. How many sweets should Roni give to Tony so that Tony has four times as many sweets as Roni?
- (a) 5
- (b) 7
- (c) 9
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 7
Solution:
Let Roni give x sweets to Tony.
Roni will have 25 − x sweets.
Tony will have 55 + x sweets.
According to the condition:
55 + x = 4(25 − x)
55 + x = 100 − 4x
5x = 45
x = 9.
Correction: The mathematically correct answer is (c) 9, not (b) 7.
126. How can the number 45 be divided into two parts such that four times one part is 9 less than five times the other?
- (a) 20, 25
- (b) 21, 24
- (c) 19, 26
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 21, 24
Solution:
Let the two parts be x and y.
x + y = 45
Four times one part is 9 less than five times the other:
4x = 5y − 9
Therefore, y = 45 − x.
4x = 5(45 − x) − 9
4x = 225 − 5x − 9
9x = 216
x = 24.
Therefore, y = 45 − 24 = 21.
The two parts are 21 and 24.
127. A man is 5 times as old as his son now. Four years ago, the product of their ages was 52. What are their present ages?
- (a) 8 and 40
- (b) 7 and 35
- (c) 6 and 30
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) 6 and 30
Solution:
Let the son’s present age be x.
The man’s present age = 5x.
Four years ago, their ages were x − 4 and 5x − 4.
Therefore:
(x − 4)(5x − 4) = 52
5x2 − 24x + 16 = 52
5x2 − 24x − 36 = 0
Solving gives x = 6.
Therefore, son’s age = 6 years and man’s age = 30 years.
128. John is 4 years older than David and Joe is 2 years younger than David. If the sum of their ages is 44, how old will John be in 8 years’ time?
- (a) 24
- (b) 25
- (c) 17
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (a) 24
Solution:
Let David’s age = x.
John’s age = x + 4.
Joe’s age = x − 2.
Their total age is 44:
x + (x + 4) + (x − 2) = 44
3x + 2 = 44
3x = 42
x = 14.
John is currently 18 years old.
After 8 years: 18 + 8 = 26.
Correction: The mathematically correct answer is (d) None of these, because John will be 26.
129. What integer values can n have, given the inequality −7 < 4n ≤ 8?
- (a) −1, 0, 1, 2
- (b) −2, −1, 0, 1, 2
- (c) −6, −5, −4, −3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (a) −1, 0, 1, 2
Solution:
−7 < 4n ≤ 8
Dividing by 4:
−1.75 < n ≤ 2.
The integer values satisfying this inequality are:
−1, 0, 1, 2.
130. A student spends 15% of his scholarship grant on food and 45% on tuition. After spending 50% of the remaining grant on his hostel fee, he is left with Rs. 8,000. How much is his scholarship grant?
- (a) Rs. 32,000
- (b) Rs. 40,000
- (c) Rs. 45,000
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) Rs. 40,000
Solution:
Food + tuition = 15% + 45% = 60%.
Remaining = 40% of the grant.
He spends 50% of the remaining amount on hostel fee, so 50% remains.
Thus, amount left = 20% of the original grant.
20% of grant = Rs. 8,000
Grant = 8,000 ÷ 0.20 = Rs. 40,000.
131. Find the value of a2 + b2, when a + b = 5 and ab = 6.
- (a) 37
- (b) 25
- (c) 13
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) 13
Solution:
We know:
a2 + b2 = (a + b)2 − 2ab
= 52 − 2(6)
= 25 − 12
= 13.
132. When the equation y = x2 + 8x − 5 is written in the form y = (x + a)2 + b, then a is:
- (a) 8
- (b) 5
- (c) 4
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) 4
Solution:
x2 + 8x − 5
= (x + 4)2 − 16 − 5
= (x + 4)2 − 21.
Therefore, a = 4.
133. Find the value of x, where A = (2π + y)x2, A = 36 and y = 2.77.
- (a) 3
- (b) 4
- (c) 2
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 4
Solution:
36 = (2π + 2.77)x2.
Using π ≈ 3.14:
36 = (6.28 + 2.77)x2
36 = 9.05x2
x2 ≈ 3.98
x ≈ 2.
Correction: With the equation exactly as written, x is approximately 1.995, so the correct answer is (c) 2, not (b) 4.
134. At a football match, the price of a child ticket is Rs. 240 less than the adult ticket. There are 18,500 adults and 2,500 children attending the match. The total amount paid for tickets is Rs. 41,400,000. What is the price of one adult ticket?
- (a) Rs. 2,460
- (b) Rs. 1,940
- (c) Rs. 2,000
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Rs. 2,000
Solution:
Let the adult ticket price = x.
Child ticket price = x − 240.
Total amount:
18,500x + 2,500(x − 240) = 41,400,000
21,000x − 600,000 = 41,400,000
21,000x = 42,000,000
x = Rs. 2,000.
135. Name the regular polygon that has an exterior angle of 36°.
- (a) Pentagon
- (b) Hexagon
- (c) Decagon
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Decagon
Solution:
Exterior angle of a regular polygon = 360° ÷ n.
36° = 360° ÷ n
n = 360 ÷ 36 = 10.
A polygon with 10 sides is called a decagon.
136. What is the perimeter of a semicircular lake having a radius of 700 m?
- (a) 127.4 km
- (b) 3.6 km
- (c) 2.9 km
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (b) 3.6 km
Solution:
Perimeter of a semicircle = πr + 2r.
= (22/7 × 700) + (2 × 700)
= 2,200 + 1,400
= 3,600 m
= 3.6 km.
137. What is the total surface area of a cylinder having a radius of 3.5 cm and height 5.5 cm?
- (a) 198 sq. cm
- (b) 211.5 sq. cm
- (c) 121 sq. cm
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (a) 198 sq. cm
Solution:
Total surface area of cylinder = 2πr(r + h).
= 2 × 22/7 × 3.5 × (3.5 + 5.5)
= 2 × 22/7 × 3.5 × 9
= 198 sq. cm.
138. The lights and brakes of 30 bicycles were tested. Twenty-seven bicycles passed the lights test and 21 passed the brakes test. One bicycle failed both tests. How many bicycles passed both tests?
- (a) 19
- (b) 21
- (c) 20
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (a) 19
Solution:
Total bicycles = 30.
One failed both tests, so 29 passed at least one test.
Using:
Passed both = Lights + Brakes − Passed at least one
= 27 + 21 − 29
= 19.
139. A box contains 8 red, 6 green, and 7 blue toys. One toy is randomly picked. What is the probability that the toy picked is neither red nor green?
- (a) 7/21
- (b) 14/21
- (c) 7/14
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (a) 7/21
Solution:
Total toys = 8 + 6 + 7 = 21.
Neither red nor green means the toy must be blue.
Number of blue toys = 7.
Probability = 7/21 = 1/3.
140. P is the brother of Q and R. S is the mother of R, and T is the father of P. Which of the following statements is not necessarily true?
- (a) T is Q’s father
- (b) P is S’s son
- (c) S is P’s mother
- (d) Q is T’s son
Show Answer
Answer: (d) Q is T’s son
Solution:
P is the brother of Q and R, so P, Q, and R are siblings.
S is the mother of R, so S is also P’s mother if they are siblings.
T is the father of P.
However, the gender of Q is not specified. Therefore, it cannot necessarily be concluded that Q is T’s son.
Hence, (d) is not necessarily true.
141. Arrange the given words in the order in which they occur in the dictionary: 1. Apparent 2. Apostate 3. Appoint 4. Apparel.
- (a) 2, 1, 4, 3
- (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
- (c) 1, 4, 3, 2
- (d) 2, 4, 1, 3
Show Answer
Answer: (d) 2, 4, 1, 3
Solution:
The correct dictionary order is:
Apostate → Apparel → Apparent → Appoint.
Therefore, the correct sequence is 2, 4, 1, 3.
142. Adil, Badar, Saima, Dawood, and Mehak each have a different amount of money. Saima has more money than only Mehak; Badar has more money than Dawood but less than Adil. Who has the highest amount of money?
- (a) Badar
- (b) Dawood
- (c) Adil
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (c) Adil
Solution:
Saima has more money than only Mehak, so Mehak has the least amount and Saima is second from the bottom.
Badar has more than Dawood but less than Adil:
Adil > Badar > Dawood.
Therefore, Adil has the highest amount of money.
Hence, the answer is (c) Adil.
143. A got more points than B but less than C. D got less points than C but more than A. If C gets less than D, then who gets the highest points?
- (a) D
- (b) E
- (c) C
- (d) None of these
Show Answer
Answer: (d) None of these
Solution:
The given statements establish:
C > D > A > B.
Therefore, C must have more points than D.
However, the question additionally states that C gets less than D, which contradicts the original condition.
Thus, the conditions are inconsistent, so none of the given choices can be logically established as the highest.
144. Given the sequence PQS, QRT, RSU, STV, … What should follow?
- (a) TUW
- (b) SUV
- (c) STU
- (d) None of these
Solution: Each corresponding letter moves one position forward in the alphabet. Therefore, after PQS, QRT, RSU, STV comes TUW.
145. A clock is placed on a table such that at 6:00 p.m. the hour hand points to North-East. In which direction will the minute hand point at 9:15 p.m.?
- (a) South-East
- (b) North-West
- (c) South-West
- (d) None of these
Solution: At 6:00, the hour hand points to the North-East. At 9:15, the minute hand is at the 3 o’clock position. With the given orientation of the clock, this corresponds to North-West.
146. The weights of four boxes are 20 kg, 30 kg, 50 kg, and 70 kg. If a combination of boxes is made using each box only once, the total weight of the combination cannot be:
- (a) 170 kg
- (b) 160 kg
- (c) 150 kg
- (d) None of these
Solution: The possible combinations of 20, 30, 50 and 70 kg do not produce a total of 160 kg. Therefore, 160 kg cannot be obtained.
147. The positions of the first and sixth digits in the number 5109238674 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the second and seventh digits are interchanged, and so on. Which one of the following will be the third digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
- (a) 9
- (b) 0
- (c) 6
- (d) None of these
Solution: Original number: 5 1 0 9 2 3 8 6 7 4. After interchanging positions 1↔6, 2↔7, 3↔8, 4↔9 and 5↔10, the rearranged number is 3 8 6 7 4 5 1 0 9 2. The third digit from the right is 0.
148. Sixteen men and 12 women can complete a work in 20 days. Eighteen women can complete the same work in 40 days. In how many days will 12 men and 27 women complete the same work?
- (a) 16
- (b) 18
- (c) 21
- (d) None of these
Solution: Let one man’s daily work rate be M and one woman’s daily work rate be W. Since 18 women complete the work in 40 days, W = 1/720. Since 16M + 12W = 1/20, M = 1/480. Therefore, the rate of 12 men and 27 women is 12/480 + 27/720 = 1/16. Hence, the required time is 16 days.
149. Statement: “Research reports that though Vitamin C present in fresh fruits and vegetables is beneficial for the human body, capsule Vitamin C does not have the same effect on the human body.” Which of the following logically follows?
- (a) Only (i) follows
- (b) Only (ii) follows
- (c) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows
- (d) Both (i) and (ii) follow
Solution: The statement distinguishes between Vitamin C obtained from fresh fruits and vegetables and Vitamin C taken in capsule form. According to the given statement, only conclusion (ii) directly follows.
150. What is the next term in the series: 11, 20, 38, 56, 83?
- (a) 108
- (b) 116
- (c) 122
- (d) None of these
Solution: The successive differences are 9, 18, 18 and 27. These values do not establish a sufficiently clear unique pattern for any of the given options. Therefore, the answer is None of these.
151. If output voltage is greater than input voltage, then the transformer is:
- (a) Step-up
- (b) Step-down
- (c) Faulty
- (d) None of these
Solution: A step-up transformer increases the output voltage above the input voltage.
152. The voltage signal generated by a microphone is called:
- (a) Digital
- (b) Analogue
- (c) Hybrid
- (d) None of these
Solution: A conventional microphone converts sound waves into a continuously varying electrical signal. This is an analogue signal.
153. The third most common gas found in the air we breathe is:
- (a) Hydrogen
- (b) Neon
- (c) Argon
- (d) None of these
Solution: Nitrogen is the most abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere, followed by oxygen. Argon is the third most abundant gas.
154. Electromagnetic radiation with the maximum wavelength is:
- (a) Ultraviolet
- (b) Radio waves
- (c) Infrared
- (d) None of these
Solution: Radio waves have the longest wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum.
155. The most penetrating type of electromagnetic radiation is:
- (a) Alpha radiation
- (b) Beta radiation
- (c) Gamma radiation
- (d) None of these
Solution: Among alpha, beta and gamma radiation, gamma radiation has the greatest penetrating power.
156. Solar energy is radiated in the form of:
- (a) Electromagnetic waves
- (b) Transverse waves
- (c) Infrared waves
- (d) None of these
Solution: Solar energy travels through space as electromagnetic radiation, including visible light, infrared and ultraviolet radiation.
157. The study of human body cells is called:
- (a) Physiology
- (b) Cytology
- (c) Mycology
- (d) None of these
Solution: Cytology is the branch of biology concerned with the study of cells.
158. Excessive bleeding during an injury can result from a deficiency of:
- (a) Vitamin B
- (b) Vitamin K
- (c) Vitamin E
- (d) None of these
Solution: Vitamin K is essential for the production of several blood-clotting proteins. Its deficiency can result in excessive bleeding.
159. Which fuel is used in gas welding?
- (a) Acetylene
- (b) Methane
- (c) Ethylene
- (d) None of these
Solution: In oxy-acetylene welding, acetylene is used as the fuel gas because it produces a very high-temperature flame when burned with oxygen.
160. Drum printers belong to which category?
- (a) Inkjet printer
- (b) Laser printer
- (c) Line printer
- (d) None of these
Solution: A drum printer is an impact printer that prints a complete line at a time. Therefore, it is classified as a line printer.
161. Machine learning is a subfield of:
- (a) Hardware Engineering
- (b) Artificial Intelligence
- (c) Cyber forensics
- (d) None of these
Solution: Machine learning is a subfield of Artificial Intelligence (AI) that enables computers to learn patterns from data and improve their performance.
162. Which of the following can be classified as renewable energy sources?
- (a) Geothermal energy
- (b) Tidal energy
- (c) Biomass energy
- (d) All of these
Solution: Geothermal, tidal and biomass energy are all renewable sources of energy. Therefore, the correct answer is All of these.
163. How do scientists know that the Earth’s core is made up largely of metal?
- (a) The density of the surface layer of Earth is much less than its average density.
- (b) The Earth’s rotation speed indicates its core structure.
- (c) The density of the surface layer of Earth is greater than its total density.
- (d) None of these
Solution: Earth’s average density is considerably greater than the density of its surface rocks. This indicates that the interior of Earth contains much denser materials, including metals in the core.
164. Maintenance of soil fertility without the addition of extra nutrients is due to:
- (a) Floods
- (b) Crop residue
- (c) Microbial activity
- (d) None of these
Solution: Soil microorganisms decompose organic matter and recycle nutrients, helping maintain soil fertility naturally. Therefore, the answer is Microbial activity.
165. Nanocomposite materials are useful in the food industry as they prevent packaged food from damage due to:
- (a) Oxygen
- (b) Carbon dioxide
- (c) Moisture
- (d) All of these
Solution: Nanocomposite packaging can improve barrier properties against gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide as well as moisture. This helps protect packaged food from environmental damage. Therefore, the answer is All of these.
166. Which of the following statements is true?
- (a) Water-soluble vitamins cannot be stored in the body
- (b) Fat-soluble vitamins can be stored in the body
- (c) The body can absorb more fat-soluble vitamins than required
- (d) All of these
Solution: Water-soluble vitamins are generally not stored in large amounts in the body, while fat-soluble vitamins can be stored in body tissues. The body can also absorb and retain excess fat-soluble vitamins. Therefore, according to the given options, the answer is All of these.
167. What global agreement, signed in 2015, aimed to limit global warming to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels?
- (a) Kyoto Protocol
- (b) Paris Agreement
- (c) Copenhagen Accord
- (d) None of these
168. Which international organization or group is responsible for the implementation of the B3W Initiative?
- (a) United Nations (UN)
- (b) Group of Seven (G7)
- (c) NATO
- (d) None of these
169. China presented a peace plan for the Ukraine war in 2023. How many points were included in China’s peace plan?
- (a) 6
- (b) 10
- (c) 12
- (d) None of these
170. What term describes the use of information warfare, disinformation, and other means to manipulate and undermine the influence of other countries?
- (a) Soft power
- (b) Sharp power
- (c) Smart power
- (d) None of these
171. The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a free trade agreement among the nations of:
- (a) North America
- (b) Europe
- (c) Asia-Pacific
- (d) None of these
172. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) was established by:
- (a) Asian Development Bank
- (b) ASEAN
- (c) Group of Seven (G7) countries
- (d) China and some other Asian countries
173. What does the “I2-U2” alliance stand for?
- (a) India-Israel-United Arab Emirates-United States
- (b) India-Israel-Ukraine-United States
- (c) Italy-Israel-Ukraine-United Kingdom
- (d) None of these
174. “G-2 or Group of Two” is an informal diplomacy between:
- (a) Germany and Greece
- (b) United States and China
- (c) Germany and Ghana
- (d) None of these
175. Which country hosted the regular meeting of the SCO Council of Foreign Ministers in 2023?
- (a) China
- (b) India
- (c) Uzbekistan
- (d) None of these
176. The Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) consists of two main components: the Silk Road Economic Belt and:
- (a) The Desert Oasis Corridor
- (b) The Himalayan Trade Route
- (c) The 21st Century Maritime Silk Road
- (d) None of these
177. When was the “Made in China 2025” strategic plan initiated?
- (a) 2010
- (b) 2015
- (c) 2020
- (d) None of these
178. Djibouti is strategically located at the mouth of which sea?
- (a) Mediterranean Sea
- (b) South China Sea
- (c) Red Sea
- (d) None of these
179. The Horn of Africa (HoA) is located in which part of the African continent?
- (a) Eastern Africa
- (b) Western Africa
- (c) Northern Africa
- (d) None of these
180. The Southeast Asia Treaty Organization (SEATO) formally came to an end in:
- (a) 1977
- (b) 1988
- (c) 1991
- (d) None of these
181. What does “CARICOM” stand for?
- (a) Canada, Austria, Romania, India-Community
- (b) Caribbean Community
- (c) Canada, Argentina, Russia, Italy-Community
- (d) None of these
182. What does BECA stand for?
- (a) Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement
- (b) Bilateral Exchange and Cooperation Accord
- (c) Basic Economic and Cultural Agreement
- (d) None of these
183. Which nation held the distinction of being the top investor in Africa by 2023?
- (a) United States
- (b) China
- (c) Russia
- (d) None of these
184. Which important shipping lane, connecting the Arabian Sea to the Persian Gulf, passes through Pakistani waters and is vital for international trade?
- (a) Strait of Hormuz
- (b) Gulf of Aden
- (c) Bab-el-Mandeb
- (d) None of these
185. Which U.S. military operation in 2011 resulted in the death of Osama bin Laden in Pakistan?
- (a) Operation Enduring Freedom
- (b) Operation Eradicating Terrorism
- (c) Operation Neptune Spear
- (d) None of these
186. The world’s highest battlefield, the Siachen Glacier, is located in which mountain range?
- (a) Himalayas
- (b) Karakoram
- (c) Hindu Kush
- (d) None of these
187. In 2017, Pakistan became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO). What is the primary purpose of the SCO?
- (a) To facilitate trade amongst member countries
- (b) To establish a common currency for member states
- (c) To promote regional cooperation and stability in Eurasia
- (d) None of these
188. Which Pakistani diplomat served as the President of the United Nations (UN) General Assembly?
- (a) Feroz Khan Noon
- (b) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
- (c) Muhammad Zafrulla Khan
- (d) None of these
189. What is the approximate length of the Batura Glacier, making it one of the largest and longest glaciers outside the polar regions?
- (a) 57 kilometers
- (b) 61 kilometers
- (c) 64 kilometers
- (d) None of these
190. Which island is known as Pakistan’s largest island and is sometimes referred to as “Jazira Haft Talar,” meaning the Island of Seven Hills?
- (a) Manora Island
- (b) Astola Island
- (c) Churna Island
- (d) None of these
191. How many members of the National Assembly must sign the notice of a no-confidence resolution for it to be valid?
- (a) At least five percent (5%)
- (b) At least ten percent (10%)
- (c) At least twenty percent (20%)
- (d) None of these
192. Pakistan’s position on the Fissile Material Cut-off Treaty (FMCT) is that:
- (a) Pre-existing stockpiles should be included in the draft of the FMCT before negotiations
- (b) The ban on nuclear testing should be lifted before signing the draft
- (c) A criteria-based approach should be applied to the NSG before finalizing the FMCT
- (d) None of these
193. As of 2023, Pakistan was included in which FATF category?
- (a) Black List
- (b) Grey List
- (c) White List
- (d) None of these
194. The Muslim League observed “Direct Action Day” on August 16, 1946, which led to communal violence in:
- (a) Delhi
- (b) Lahore
- (c) Kolkata
- (d) Mumbai
195. Who wrote the book “Train to Pakistan,” which is set during the Partition of India in 1947?
- (a) Bapsi Sidhwa
- (b) Amrita Pritam
- (c) Khushwant Singh
- (d) None of these
196. In the Bogra Formula, the proposed lower house of Parliament was named:
- (a) House of Commons
- (b) House of People
- (c) National Assembly
- (d) None of these
197. The Lenin Peace Prize was awarded to:
- (a) Habib Jalib
- (b) Ahmed Faraz
- (c) Faiz Ahmed Faiz
- (d) None of these
198. After India’s Independence, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was appointed as:
- (a) Minister of Education
- (b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- (c) Minister of Finance
- (d) None of these
199. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman presented his Six-Point Programme in:
- (a) 1966
- (b) 1959
- (c) 1968
- (d) None of these
200. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Pakistan is appointed by the:
- (a) President
- (b) Prime Minister
- (c) Majority vote in the Parliament
- (d) None of these